i just received the write up from Dr Lonner...am confused...obviously, i need at least another visit, which i was planning...but now i am ...just confused!
originally we spoke of L4 to S1 and T11 to sacrum...with bilateral pelvic fixation...that was a year ago, before the offer of minimal invasive made to me April 12th...
however, the write up says...amongst other things...that i am "...particularly hypokyphotic in the thoracic spine, but with good overall balance"...i understand that part...
it also says ".....lumbar spine reveals left lateral recess and foraminal stenosis of L4-5. Multilevel degenerative disc disease is noted"...is that just my spinal stenosis and disc disease problem...?
he recommends the surgery...but this is the confusing part...
"...in the form of lateral anterior approach from L1-L5 with interbody spacers and BMP. This would be followed by posterior instrumental fusion with less invasive muscle dissection technique and ileac fixation as well with interbody fusion from the posterior approach also done at L5-S1."
HOWEVER...he later states..."The posterior procedure will be done from T11 to the sacrum and including the pelvis."
SO....how many "posterior approaches" does that make...2...3?
any explanations would be much appreciated...i will be calling the doctor and revisiting him...but am wondering if anyone thinks that T11 thing is a typo...?!!
thanks...very much for reading this!
jess
originally we spoke of L4 to S1 and T11 to sacrum...with bilateral pelvic fixation...that was a year ago, before the offer of minimal invasive made to me April 12th...
however, the write up says...amongst other things...that i am "...particularly hypokyphotic in the thoracic spine, but with good overall balance"...i understand that part...
it also says ".....lumbar spine reveals left lateral recess and foraminal stenosis of L4-5. Multilevel degenerative disc disease is noted"...is that just my spinal stenosis and disc disease problem...?
he recommends the surgery...but this is the confusing part...
"...in the form of lateral anterior approach from L1-L5 with interbody spacers and BMP. This would be followed by posterior instrumental fusion with less invasive muscle dissection technique and ileac fixation as well with interbody fusion from the posterior approach also done at L5-S1."
HOWEVER...he later states..."The posterior procedure will be done from T11 to the sacrum and including the pelvis."
SO....how many "posterior approaches" does that make...2...3?
any explanations would be much appreciated...i will be calling the doctor and revisiting him...but am wondering if anyone thinks that T11 thing is a typo...?!!
thanks...very much for reading this!
jess
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